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Old 09-28-2018, 09:15 AM   #78
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Originally Posted by AC2717 View Post
I'm not using that as a reason, I am using it as an example. My argument is an acre in the town is an acre in the town. I am removing Market value from the equation. If I own a acre in the town and you own an acre in the same town, why should our taxes be anything different. Fully agree when purchasing desirability is driving costs.
I own 4 acres of vacant land in town. It has no road access, and has wetlands. Either way, it is not build able and there are no structures on the land. No residents, no burden on town services, etc. It is valued at $8k, so my current property tax is very low. I also own 1 acre on which my house is built. The land alone is valued at $55k, not including the house.

So you think that I should pay the same property tax on both parcels?
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